In her post entitled Don’t Call It Rape, Echidne of the Snakes discusses the case involving Tory Bowen, the alleged rape victim who was not allowed to use the word “rape” in her testimony. Echidne quotes from a recent article in the Kansas City Star:
But a judge prohibited her from uttering the word “rape” in front of a jury. The term “sexual assault” also was taboo, and Bowen could not refer to herself as a victim or use the word “assailant” to describe the man who allegedly raped her.
The defendant’s presumption of innocence and right to a fair trial trumps Bowen’s right of free speech, said the Lincoln, Neb., judge who issued the order.
The comments posted by Echidne’s readers reflect the range of reactions in the feminist blogosphere to this case and other publicized rape trials. Legal professionals and those acquainted with the criminal justice system are not troubled by the language restrictions. Readers who do not have the knowledge of law and the rules of evidence are outraged that the alleged victim was virtually silenced and the charges against the alleged assailant were dropped. Echidne and her readers should be commended for discussing this emotional topic without the sorry spectacle of vitriol and name-calling, such as taunts of “rape apologist,” for any commenter who spoke in favor of the language restrictions.
In June 2007, Figleaf wrote an insightful post about this case, The No-Sex Class: Disquieting Conversations About Rape, citing the criticisms made by Dalia Lithwick of Slate and Amanda Marcotte of Pandagon. Since there have been so many developments since June, 2007, here is a summary for those unfamiliar with this case.
October 31, 2004
The date of the alleged rape of Tory Bowen by Pamir Safi. Safi and Bowen were strangers before meeting on the evening of October 30, 2004. Bowen claims that a date-rape drug was administered to her and she has no memory of what occurred that evening or during the night. When she woke up on the morning of October 31, she was naked, in a strange bed and Safi was on top of her, performing penis-vagina sex.
November 2006
The first trial began October 23, 2006 and ended November 6, 2006 with a deadlocked jury. Prior to the first trial, Judge Jeffre Cheuvront granted a defense motion to bar prosecutors from eliciting testimony or making arguments in front of jurors using words like “rape,” “sexual assault kit,” “victim” and “assailant.” Furthermore, the jury could not be told that these specific words were prohibited from the testimony.
At the trial Bowen testified for nearly 13 hours. She was quoted by the JournalStar.com: “They’ll (jurors) think I’m choosing to use the word, ‘sex,’” she said. “I had to pause (at the first trial) and think, re-navigate (how to say what happened). ... Jurors won’t find me credible because I’m pausing to find the words.”
July 12, 2007
Lancaster County District Judge Jeffre Cheuvront, in a ruling from the bench, declared a mistrial in the second trial of Pamir Safi, immediately prior to jury selection. His reason was that the extensive publicity that the case received made it impossible for the defendant to receive a fair trial.
September 2007
Tory Bowen filed a lawsuit in Lancaster County against Judge Cheuvront, claiming that Cheuvront’s banning of the words rape, sexual assault, victim, and assailant from the first trial in 2006 violated her right of due process and free speech. U.S. District Judge Richard G. Kopf dismissed Bowen’s lawsuit as frivolous and wrote that there was no evidence the trial judge acted in bad faith.However, in a footnote Kopf took issue with the wisdom of the state judge’s decision. “For the life of me, I do not understand why a judge would tell an alleged rape victim that she cannot say she was ‘raped’ when she testifies in a trial about rape,” he said.
January 2008
Prosecutors for the state of Nebraska dismissed the charges against Pamir Safi before a third trial due to the trial judge’s ban on language and limits on evidence, including prior rape allegations against the defendant.
April 2008
The 8th U.S. Circuit Court of Appeals upheld the decision by a U.S. District Judge Richard G. Kopf to dismiss the lawsuit filed by Tory Bowen against Judge Cheuvront for violation of her right to due process and free speech resulting from Cheuvront’s ban of rape and other related terms from Bowen’s testimony. The appellate court upheld the decision on procedural rather than substantive grounds, citing that since a summons was never served on Judge Cheuvront, the court had no jurisdiction. Since the criminal charges against Pamir Safi were dismissed in January 2008, the issues in the case were moot. Lawyer Wendy Murphy of Boston, who represents Bowen, stated that she plans to file a petition with the U.S. Supreme Court.
I presented the detailed chronology of this case for a specific reason. Unlike many bloggers who have written about rape trials which received national attention, I do not believe that the banning of words such “rape” or “victim” is proof, in and of itself, of the judicial system’s bias against women and/or rape victims. The limitation of language is intended to protect the defendant’s right to a fair trial. One of Echidne’s readers, Karen Marie, offered this lucid explanation.
I have been typing Massachusetts Superior Court trial transcripts for over 25 years and I can explain to you very simply why this apparent “outrage” is not really such an outrage.
“Victim” is a highly charged word, it presupposes, preassumes “victim” status. Refer yourself to the concept of presumption of innocence, which is the principle that a person can only be found guilty through credible evidence.
We are all aware of the many unfortunate people who are wrongly convicted of emotionally-charged crimes (or because they are from a currently unpopular ethnic/religious group).
It is important that the level of emotion be tamped down in legal proceedings so as not to unfairly prejudice the jury against the defendant.
Thus, in Massachusetts the term “the complaining witness” is used in place of “victim.”
“Rape” in a court is a legal term with specific essential elements which must be proved in order to find a defendant guilty. to allow a complaining witness to say “he raped me” jumps the intervening evidentiary requirements. what the complaining witness is asked to do is describe precisely what acts the defendant committed — i.e., “he stuck his penis in my vagina,” “he touched my breast,” etc.
To do otherwise, to allow the use of emotionally-charged language would harm us all. the law, rules of evidence and procedure are there to protect all of us, and especially important in highly emotional cases where the mere fact of being arrested and charged leads many to assume WITH NO EVIDENCE that they in fact committed the crime.
Just think how you would feel if you were charged with a crime and at your trial the prosecution were allowed to present its case through incitement of emotion to overcome jurors’ ability to evaluate the credibility of evidence in deciding whether you are guilty or not guilty.
ALL of the rules of law MUST apply to ALL defendants, regardless of whether there were seventeen eyewitnesses or none. Even if seventeen people SAW someone get raped by someone else, the same rules must apply and the state cannot be permitted to jump those intervening steps and produce evidence to prove “each and every essential element of the crime beyond a reasonable doubt.”
Even after over 25 years, those words still make me very proud to be a citizen of this country.
The title of this post, The Troubling Language of Rape, was the name of a conference held by the Judicial Language Project of the Center for Law and Social Responsibility at the New England School of Law. The Judicial Language Project, which was the subject of a post by Ann Bartow of Feminist Law Professors, aims to identify language in judicial opinions that implies that victims willingly participated in the violence or were responsible for the violence. For example, a defendant was convicted of ten criminal counts including sexual assault, rape and kidnapping. The appeal that was filed contained the words “engaging in vaginal intercourse” or “engaged in sexual activity.” The defendant was an adult male and the victim was his 8-year old granddaughter whom he sexually abused over a two year period.
According to the JLP analysis, the term “engaged” implies the child was participating and lessens the defendant’s responsibility for his coercion of the child. The language that the court should use is precise: “forced penetration of the child’s sexual organ.” And because it is precise, the language places sole responsibility for the act where it belongs: with the defendant.
Professor Elizabeth Wood wrote about the need for this precision of language in her post entitled, Why We Need More Explicit Sex Talk in Courtrooms. Her point is that, as uncomfortable as we may be with explicit descriptions of sexual acts, we cannot afford to be vague or use euphemisms in a court of law.
It is no wonder that the story of this case and Tory Bowen’s ordeal was picked up by so many feminist blogs. Since I have not read transcripts of the trial, I do not know whether Ms. Bowen was required to substitute vague terms such as “sexual intercourse” for “rape,” or if she could use precise language to describe the fact that she was unconscious when Safi penetrated her vagina with his penis. Both Tory Bowen and her attorney, Wendy Murphy, were listed as presenters in the agenda for the JLP conference and, I would be very interested in reading their presentations so as to understand what Ms. Bowen could and could not say in court. But until I do, I will withhold judgment and outrage. And I urge my fellow bloggers to do the same.




Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Tue, 2008-06-10 15:27.
As a former attorney (I often say "recovering attorney") I may be able to shed a little light on this issue.
The presumption of innocence is one of our most sacred institutions in our country. Therefore preserving that presumption is vitally important.
It is the prosecutor's job to prepare a witness so that matters like this do not arise. "complaining witness" is generally used instead of "victim." A good prosecutor will draw out the facts of the case in order to show that the defendant's actions meet the criteria for a conviction of a particular charge. In a sexual assault case involving someone able to consent (generally over 15, but varies by state), these criteria will be that the defendant sexually penetrated the complaining witness (or had sexual contact short of penetration with the complaining witness in a lesser charge) and that the complaining witness did not consent. The prosecutor should be able to elicit the testimony of the complaining witness to establish these facts without the use of the terms rape or victim.
It gets more complicated when the alleged victim is a child. In my state, the language used when a minor is involved is that the defendant allegedly "penetrated" or "had sexual contact with" and is generally followed by a "to wit: XXX" (vaginal penetration, fellatio, touched V's buttocks, had V touch his penis, etc.) The consent or failure to consent of the child is not part of the charging language because it is not relevant. A person under a certain age is unable to legally consent, therefore any sexual contact with such a person is always non-consensual.
Did that help or just muddy the waters more? The essential thing to me is that a good attorney should be able to get the necessary testimony without using the emotionally charged and legally irrelevant words this judge barred, but also without using terms like "intercourse" that imply consent.
The appropriateness of the use of the words "assailant" or "sexual assault" also hinges on the facts of a particular case and the defendant's defense. If the defendant admits that a sexual act took place between defendant and alleged victim but says that it was consensual, then barring those terms is appropriate because the defendant is arguing that no assault took place. If the defendant doesn't deny that the alleged victim was sexually assaulted by someone, but claims that he did not do it, the terms assailant and sexual assault might be perfectly acceptable.
[Thank you, Bunny, for this clarification. I do not see the prohibition of certain language as a problem, provided that the alleged victim can use other terminology that would not imply consent. However, there are certain aspects of this case that, IMO, seem to have been orchestrated for the sake of publicity: the extensive media coverage after the first trial (which resulted in the second trial being declared a mistrial,) the lawsuit against the trial judge filed by Ms. Bowen, and the participation of Ms. Bowen and Ms. Murphy at the JLP conference. As District Judge Kopf had said, Ms. Bowen's case is not special, but the media coverage would lead one to believe that it is. So I still have a lot of unanswered questions about the particulars of this case and the testimony. -- Kochanie]
Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Tue, 2008-06-10 16:32.
Victim and rape, highly charged? As a juror I think I would be too confused. A jury of ones peers speaks plain English. These descriptions that were given by lawyers make no sense to me.
I can't say someone robbed me while testifying. What could I say other than that. Taking my money is no way precise as saying the person robbed me.
Just describing a sex act is not precise enough for me. Isn't that why we have vocabulary in the thousands; so that we can make distinctions, however slight, to get precision.
[District Court Judge Kopf, when commenting on this case, said that jurors are very intelligent and understand the acts described, even when certain words are not used. For example, if you were on the wiitness stand, you would describe how the defendant pointed a gun at you and demanded your purse. To the jury, that would be an even more vivid description than saying "The defendant robbed me." Thanks, Five of Nine. -- Kochanie]
Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Tue, 2008-06-10 17:04.
Maybe Bunny (or any other resident legal experts) can say more on this point, but it seems to me that rape may be unique in that the trial must establish that a crime occurred at all. Or are there other crimes that present a parallel problem?
If you have a murder, say, the coroner has presumably determined that a person died an unnatural death before the case ever enters the courtroom. An assault victim will have bruises or other injuries to show for it. In the case of rape, though, the prosecutor has to show that whatever sexual act occurred was nonconsensual - even if there's trauma, that might be construed as consensual rough sex. (I'm thinking specifically of the Kobe Bryant case.)
And I guess this suggests why it's hard to get a conviction in rape cases - and often well-nigh impossible when it's an acquaintance rape scenario.
At the same time, I'm convinced by the legal argument that you can't presume guilt until it's been proven. What a Catch-22.
"...that rape may be unique in that the trial must establish that a crime occurred at all." I think Bunny may have answered this question in her comment, when she gave the example "If the defendant doesn't deny that the alleged victim was sexually assaulted by someone, but claims that he did not do it, the terms assailant and sexual assault might be perfectly acceptable." Another related example: District Attorney Carr did not file charges in connection with the De Anza rape case. While there was evidence that a rape had been committed, there was insufficient evidence to charge a particular person or persons. The statute of limitations for charging the perpetrator(s) makes it a wiser decision to wait until more evidence emerges, rather than filing charges which cannot be proven. Keep in mind that under the doctrine of double jeopardy, the defendant cannot be tried twice for the same crime, which is more reason why the DA may bide her time. Thanks, Sungold. -- Kochanie]
Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Tue, 2008-06-10 19:25.
Sungold said: "...it seems to me that rape may be unique in that the trial must establish that a crime occurred at all."
Woah, Sungold, it never occurred to me to look at it that way but... sweet mother of pearl that sucks! For the record I think it's fairly common in *civil* cases for the plaintiff to have to prove that a wrong was committed. And maybe that derives from the English Common Law tradition that rape is a property crime against the custodial male rather than the victim herself. But... that's some kind of messed up.
There's a lot of other stuff that needs to happen before the radical feminist ideal of equality of power can be reached, but I think this one's got to be fixed before anyone can say the work's done.
Great post Kochanie.
figleaf
[Hey, thanks, fl. And feel free to butt in anytime. -- Kochanie]
Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Tue, 2008-06-10 22:00.
It still strikes me a lot like trying to prove a murder without using the words "death", "killed" or, well, "murder".
Maybe I just watch too much Law & Order... but they use the word "rape" all the time and it's just a word.
[Actually, Plymouth, I served as a juror at a murder trial and the bulk of the testimony dealt with forensic and ballistic evidence, which was critical in corroborating or eliminating conflicting eye witness reports. For example, a witness would say, "X was standing three feet away from Y. Then X fired the gun at Y five times." The words "killed" or "murdered" were not used. I'm not a big tv fan, so I don't know how accurate Law & Order is its courtroom portrayals. Thanks --.Kochanie]
Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Tue, 2008-06-10 23:05.
Two comments.
First: People do accuse each other of crimes that never actually happened to destroy the other person's reputation. While it rarely goes as far as trial, occasionally you do have to prove that an actual crime was committed in non-rape cases. Or even on rare occasions have to prove that someone actually intended to cause harm. This is far from the norm, however. Also, in cases of stranger rape, it may often be obvious that a crime was committed, but there may be some doubt as to who actually did it (especially if they concealed their identity). But it is true that rape is the only crime where it is very frequently so that if it goes to trial, the trial must prove that there actually was a crime. On the other hand, also unlike most other types of crimes, once that has been established there is usually no doubt as to who actually did it.
Second: I think Figleaf here is overthinking the last part. It doesn't matter what sex people are. If a man rapes a man, a woman rapes a man, or even a woman rapes a woman, they still have to prove that a crime was committed. If you think male-on-female rape has crappy conviction rates, well, I've heard that male-on-male is even worse. While it's true that victims are disproportionately women and the perpetrators are disproportionately men, I don't see how it matters if it was originally considered a crime against the woman's "owner", or how fixing the justice system will have any significant effect on "equality of power". The justice system is not there to *prevent* crimes. It's just there to punish people. And it's not like punishment, or threat of same, has done a whole lot to stop people from killing, stealing, raping, or causing general mayhem. It just makes a few borderline people reconsider and the smarter criminals more careful.
[I agree that the justice system does not prevent crime. The judicial system exists to uphold the law, and in many states, the definition of what constitutes "rape" is based on laws that date back to English Common Law. As a result, in some jurisdictions for a crime to be classified as "rape" would require penetration of a woman's vagina by a man's penis. Penetration of the vagina with an object, or forcing a man or a minor to perform oral sex or submit to anal penetration could be classified as sexual assault and subject to lesser penalties. Lesser penalty may mean less time in jail, but the perpetrator, after being subject to prison rape, will still return to society as a walking time bomb. So in that regard, I agree that the justice system will not prevent crime, and in some cases, only reinforces it. Thanks, Nightfall. -- Kochanie]
Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Wed, 2008-06-11 07:13.
There are other types of criminal cases where the state sometimes must show that a crime did in fact occur. For instance, in a larceny from a dwelling case the defendant may admit that he took a lawnmower from his neighbor's garage, but his defense is that it was his lawnmower in the first place and he was just retrieving it. (Obviously such a case will not likely make it that far in the criminal justice system - this example also ignores the trespass or breaking/entering elements that would also likely be charged).
Another possibility is where a person is charged with assaulting another, but the defense is that the alleged victim and the defendant where participating in a consensual "ultimate fighting" match or that the victim assaulted the defendant first and the defendant's actions were actually in self-defense and therefore not a crime. Or the defendant beat the snot out of the alleged victim to stop the alleged victim from beating his wife in the Wal-Mart parking lot. (Defense of another).
These are cases where the defendant admits the act occurred, just as a rape (not a legal term, in most states) defendant might admit that the act occurred, but the defense is that the act was not actually a crime.
As a sidenote, while I enjoy the Law & Order series generally, they are no where near accurate in terms of courtroom procedure. The rules of evidence are ignored except where it suits the story and the courtroom demeanor and procedures are often highly inaccurate and would never, ever be acceptable in a real courtroom. Perhaps New York state is different, but in most states the statutes do not define any crime as "rape" or even "statutory rape." "Criminal sexual assault" or "criminal sexual conduct" are the legal terms for these crimes, "rape" is the lay term for the act. One of the things that the judge and attorney do in selecting and preparing a jury is define the legal terms and explain why the jury must focus on the statutory definition of the crime(s) with which the defendant is charged and then listen to the testimony and examine the evidence, determine what the true facts are (the jury or the judge in a bench trial are called the "finders of fact" and trial is the only level at which facts can be determined, appeal is for legal issues only), then apply the facts to the statutory definition to determine (a) whether a crime was committed and (b) whether the defendant committed that crime.
[Once again, thanks for the professional perspective here, Bunny. As I mentioned earlier, I am not a tv fan, but from what I remember Law & Order exercised dramatic license when portraying court trials. IMO, the limitations on the use of language are no different from removing the handcuffs from the wrists of the defendant in a murder trial before the jury is allowed into the courtroom. The jury knows the defendant was transported under armed guard, but the visual reminder is removed, so that the defendant is not perceived as convicted of the crime before the trial is concluded. Thanks. -- Kochanie]
Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Wed, 2008-06-11 09:25.
Butting in on Kochanie's post again here. Hi Bunny. If I'm not mistaken the issue in this trial is that the judge didn't just limit the use of the word "rape," he barred prosecutors and witness, including the victim, to use *any* "potentially prejudicial" terms at all! With the result that he's requiring the victim to say things like "when he had sex with me" instead of "when he raped me" or "when he criminally sexually assaulted me."
Specifically the defendant's attorney argued, evidently succesfully, that "It's a legal conclusion for a witness to say, 'I was raped' or 'sexually assaulted.'" Since it's procedurally the *judge's or jury's* duty to form legal conclusions it's improper for the victim to say *anything* but "we had sex" or "we had intercourse" in her testimony against her accuser. Dahlia Lithwick, herself a lawyer as well as a journalist, points out a corresponding conclusion embedded in the word "sex," that "sex" is consensual.
figleaf
Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Wed, 2008-06-11 16:05.
Is sex actually a verb and what does intercourse mean exactly, since it has two meanings?
[Ooh that's harsh, Five! But yeah, maybe the defense can object that "intercourse" has too many connotations and ask the judge to require the victim to say only "talk!" :-( Thanks. --fl]
Submitted by 2211 (not verified) on Wed, 2008-06-11 18:06.
"Intercourse" is normally used to refer to talking or sex, but it can refer to anything which is consensual and reciprocal (including, even, an exchange of goods)
"Sex" is not normally a verb in english... though there is the phrase "I want to sex you up". That's too ambiguous, though, because it could mean either "have sex with you" or "make you sexy". The actual verb is the two-word combination "have sex". "Sex" is an action-noun and "have" doesn't mean anything by itself.