This post is about detecting the differences in levels of attraction between individuals who’ve just met. The image above isn’t just a shameless cut-out from a Scott Meyer comic, it illustrates a point I’ll get to further down. So take a good look and read on.
Via ResearchBlogging, a post at the British Psychological Society’s Research Digest Blog says
[U]sing footage of couples on speed-dates… [f]ifty-four students observed dozens of 10-, 20- or 30-second clips of real speed dating interactions and attempted to say in each case whether each person was romantically interested in the other.The researchers had access to the daters’ real decisions about whether they were interested in any of their speed dates, and were able to compare these with the students’ judgements.
The students performed more accurately than would be expected had they simply been guessing. They judged the interest of the male daters with 61 per cent accuracy and the female daters with 58 per cent accuracy. Their accuracy was unaffected by the length of each clip, but was higher when the clip was taken from the middle or the end of a dating interaction. Students currently in a romantic relationship outperformed those who weren’t.
That’s actually pretty interesting, leaving aside the evident heteronormativity of the research anyway. I’m guessing we’ve all been in that sort of situation where we see two people interacting and it’s almost instantly obvious that they’re interested in each other. And yet even days or weeks later you can find each soliloquizing about the other, wondering whether the other even remembers. Same, of course, for less optimal situations where it’s clear one’s interested and the other’s not. And it’s cool to find out people can tell in as little as 10 seconds.
Or, sort of.
Approximately 60% accuracy isn’t random at all, but 60% accuracy also makes one pretty darn glad we don’t go in so much for yentas and other forms of mandatory matchmakers any more.
Sadly the study, by Skylar S. Place of Indiana University and colleagues... or perhaps just the report on the study (I can’t tell since firewalled research papers are prohibitively expensive to ordinary shmoes like me)... falls down when it comes to analysis. (Emphasis mine.)
The fact the students were less accurate when judging the romantic interest of females compared with males was just as the researchers had predicted. Place’s team said it made sense for women to “behave more covertly and ambiguously” because there is more at stake for them in making a potential mating choice. By hiding their romantic interest, the researchers argued, women are able to give themselves more time to evaluate a potential partner before revealing their feelings.
Sooo you’re probably expecting me to unload here about how if one is going to do science trying to justify stereotypes it’s a bit of a stretch to assume men don’t have feelings, or reasons to hide them, when they’re meeting someone for the first time. Or that those reasons would be better than women’s reasons for hiding theirs. Or you might expect me to grumble about the assumption that, whatever some imaginary “state of nature” might have been, contemporary western men’s investment in long-term partnerships is really significantly less than women’s?
You might expect me to scowl textually at descriptive words like “covert” and “ambiguous” and other terms that stereotypically imply disingenuousness or perfidy in women and, by implication, honesty and forthrightness in men.
You might expect me to foghorn on about how the slight differences could be attributed to a no-sex class reticence on the part of women, or, even better, hint that maybe because we’re all predisposed to the no-sex class paradigm where it’s simultaneously inconceivable and intolerable for women to show sexual interest that the research subjects were predisposed to judge less subtle signs of interest as disinterest.
Eh. You probably were expecting me to say something just like that. Which is kind of cool because it would mean you’re starting to get it and so I don’t have to say it so much! :-)
Nah.
Instead I just wanted to see if you noticed the difference in the background color in that comic up top. Perfectly obvious eh? Wha…? Not so obvious? But I’d predicted based on theory that you’d have noticed that the background color on the left was 58% saturated and the background color on the right was 61% saturated! Go look again, because while I might have had other, credible things to say about the study I was going to base my analysis of my results on the fact that a 58% to 61% difference, though measurable, was really really significant! No?
But… but… but… the woman’s on the fifty-eight percent side! Doesn’t that make a huge difference now? And the man’s on the sixty-one percent side? Now can you see?
Gee, I guess “measurable difference” and “significant difference” don’t mean exactly the same thing.
—-
My point here isn’t to knock the basic research. It really is cool that people can tell, with somewhat better than random frequency, when two individuals are interested in each other based on just a few seconds of observation. And it would be really cool, actually, to conduct a study where accuracy was judged over time… because I’d be curious to know whether accuracy tended to decline during longer observation intervals. (I’d be inclined to guess yes because observers would tend to start overthinking and otherwise bringing in more complex culture-based analysis rather than pure reflex body-language judgment.)
But to conduct the experiment in order to confirm a hypothesis that women are harder to read than men because ? And get just a couple of percentage points difference overall? I probably wouldn’t brag about that.





Submitted by 2741 (not verified) on Fri, 2009-02-27 12:00.
Its also interesting that the researches concluded that the difference came from the women hiding things more than men rather then focusing the difference in the ability of their students to read men and women.
Submitted by 2741 (not verified) on Fri, 2009-02-27 21:19.
The thing is, ±3% is almost certainly within the statistical margin of error (for example, that's the margin reported on most opinion polls based on surveys of over 1,000 people; it's also the usual margin of error on a standard IQ test)
So it's quite likely that it is not even a measurable difference, let alone a significant one.
To report it as supporting any kind of hypothesis about differences between the sexes is absolutely appalling, and if that statement appeared in a peer-reviewed journal, the reviewers should be shot!
Submitted by 2741 (not verified) on Sun, 2009-03-01 16:21.
This reminds me of a paper I wrote about The Sound and the Fury in high school. I had a thesis I found really interesting, but when I finally worked it all out, I realized I didn't have enough material to write a 25 page paper (or whatever length it was supposed to be). So I chose another thesis. I could support the new thesis using the text, and write a creditable paper of sufficient length about it, but I really didn't believe my new thesis, even as I was writing the paper.
Unfortunately I can't remember both theses in sufficient detail. I think they had to do with associating the smell of honeysuckles with sexuality.
Anyway, to bring it back to your post and the article you reference, I wonder what other factors might have played into the conclusions that were drawn.
Submitted by 2741 (not verified) on Sun, 2009-03-01 16:52.
Hmm, I'd have predicted it would be harder to read the women too. For the following reasons:
1) Women are socialised to be nice and work hard at not hurting men's feelings, so if they're not interested they'll try harder to hide it.
2) (related) Men's feelings are considered more important than women's in the culture generally. People pay more attention to the feelings of members of dominant social groups. Though being told by the experimenters to pay attention to and try to read the female daters probably mitigates that to some extent.
Still, I'm surprised the gap was so small.
[Hi Umami. I might have predicted the same thing, and probably for the same reasons as you. Although I'd probably give more weight to the possibility that men too are self-conscious both about revealing our intentions and about how our intentions might be perceived or misperceived. Or it *could* just be that especially in short bursts observers are able to see past all that. But what gets me about the study isn't that they predicted a difference, or that the results were actually very similar. It's that they claimed the data *confirmed* their predictions when it was way, way inside the margin of error. Thanks! --fl]
Submitted by 2741 (not verified) on Mon, 2009-03-02 13:33.
As someone who's actually done some stats, it really annoys me that they never state things like confidence intervals, number of subjects, p-value, etc. with these things. The bare numbers are actually meaningless without that stuff, since that estimates the margin of error. As it is, I can't even tell whether the result is statistically significant or not (although if it's not, they should NOT be reporting that they found a difference at all.) With the percentages that close, I wouldn't be surprised.
But ignore me, I am just a grumpy maths person - statistically or significant or not, it does illustrate something you can often find in this kind of thing, that relatively small differences are inflated to these massive statements about whole populations. If, for instance, 4% more men than women are X, you really should not be talking about the deep meaning this has about differences in X between men and women!
[Yup. I'm not associated with an academic library so no way I could afford to read the actual papers which, for some reason, despite almost always being paid for with *public grant money,* are almost always behind for-pay firewalls. So yeah, the actual numbers might provide some backup... but here's the deal: as far as I know the reporters who write these things up never see the original papers either, they just breathlessly ooh and ahh at stereotype confirmations. (The ones that *don't* enforce stereotypes rarely get reported at all.) Also, you said "If, for instance, 4% more men than women are X, you really should not be talking about the deep meaning this has about differences in X between men and women!" Exactly! 4% difference means "basically identical," not "predictable differences." Thanks, Kaz. And don't knock yourself for being a math pro! --fl]